AP Biology Unit 6 Part II Test

Name: ____________________
Instructions: Please answer multiple choice on the test and scantron.  Please answer the short answer only on the test. 

Multiple Choice (1 point each)
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____	1.	What is true of macroevolution?
a.	It is evolution above the species level.	
b.	It is defined as the evolution of microscopic organisms into organisms that can be seen with the naked eye.	
c.	It is the only conceptual link between natural selection and adaptation.	
d.	It is the same as microevolution, but includes the origin of new species.	

____	2.	The origin of a new plant species by hybridization, coupled with accidents during cell division that leads to polyploidy, is an example of
a.	allopatric speciation.	
b.	sympatric speciation.	
c.	habitat selection.	
d.	behavioral speciation.	

The next few questions refer to the following description.

On the volcanic, equatorial West African island of Sao Tomé, two species of fruit fly exist. Drosophila yakuba inhabits the island's lowlands, and is also found on the African mainland, located about 200 miles away. At higher elevations, and only on Sao Tomé, is found the very closely related Drosophila santomea. The two species can hybridize, though male hybrids are sterile. A hybrid zone exists at middle elevations, though hybrids there are greatly outnumbered by D. santomea. Studies of the two species' nuclear genomes reveal that D. yakuba on the island is more closely related to mainland D. yakuba than to D. santomea (2n = 4 in both species). Sao Tomé rose from the Atlantic Ocean about 14 million years ago.

____	3.	Using only the information provided in the paragraph, which of the following is the best initial hypothesis for how D. santomea descended from D. yakuba?
a.	geographic isolation	
b.	habitat differentiation	
c.	sexual selection	
d.	polyploidy	

____	4.	Which of the following reduces gene flow between the gene pools of the two species on Sao Tomé, despite the existence of hybrids?
a.	Reduced hybrid viability	
b.	Hybrid breakdown	
c.	Reduced hybrid fertility	
d.	A geographic barrier	

____	5.	If the low number of hybrid flies in the hybrid zone, relative to the number of D. santomea flies there, is due to the fact that hybrids are poorly adapted to conditions in the hybrid zone, and if fewer hybrid flies are produced with the passage of time, these conditions will most likely lead to
a.	continuing production of hybrids	
b.	stability.	
c.	reinforcement.	
d.	fusion.	

____	6.	According to the endosymbiotic theory of the origin of eukaryotic cells, how did mitochondria originate?
a.	from engulfed, originally free-living bacteria	
b.	by secondary endosymbiosis	
c.	when a eukaryote engaged in a symbiotic relationship with a protocell	
d.	from the nuclear envelope folding outward and forming mitochondrial membranes	

____	7.	Which of the following is NOT a limitation of fossils? 
a.	Fossils show only organisms that were able to be preserved, typically those around for a long time.	
b.	Fossils usually only show organisms that had hard shells or bones that facilitated fossilization.	
c.	Fossils make it difficult to observe soft-bodied organisms alive at different points in time. 	
d.	Fossils show the general change in organisms over time and the diversity of the earth at particular times.	

____	8.	Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life?
I. 	formation of protocells
II. 	synthesis of small organic monomers
III. 	synthesis of organic macromolecules
IV. 	formation of DNA-based genetic systems
a.	II, III, IV, I	
b.	I, II, III, IV	
c.	I, III, II, IV	
d.	II, III, I, IV	

____	9.	A hybrid zone is BEST defined as
a.	a zone that features a gradual change in species composition where two neighboring ecosystems border each other.	
b.	a zone that includes the intermediate portion of a cline.	
c.	an area where mating occurs between members of two closely related species, producing offspring.	
d.	an area where two closely related species' ranges overlap.	

The next question refers to the following description.

On the Bahamian island of Andros, mosquitofish populations live in various, now-isolated, freshwater ponds that were once united. Currently, some predator-rich ponds have mosquitofish that can swim in short, fast bursts; other predator-poor ponds have mosquitofish that can swim continuously for a long time. When placed together in the same body of water, the two kinds of female mosquitofish exhibit exclusive breeding preferences, meaning that they are attracted to different characteristics in their mates. These fish have unique mating dances that the other population does not recognize.  

____	10.	Which type of reproductive isolation operates to keep the mosquitofish isolated, even when fish from different ponds are reunited in the same body of water?
a.	mechanical isolation	
b.	gametic isolation	
c.	behavioral isolation	
d.	temporal isolation	

____	11.	Adaptive radiations can be a direct consequence of three of the following four factors. Select the exception.
a.	evolutionary innovation (ex. seeds or body armor)	
b.	vacant ecological niches	
c.	genetic drift	
d.	Minimal competition resulting from a new habitat (i.e. new island forms and no other competition)	

Figure 23.3

____	12.	Upon being formed, oceanic islands, such as the Hawaiian Islands, should feature what characteristic, leading to which phenomenon?
a.	mass extinctions, leading to bottleneck effect	
b.	major evolutionary innovations, leading to rafting to nearby continents	
c.	a variety of empty ecological niches, leading to adaptive radiation	
d.	overcrowding, leading to rafting to nearby lands	

____	13.	Beetle pollinators of a particular plant are attracted to its flowers' bright orange color. The beetles not only pollinate the flowers, but they mate while inside of the flowers. A mutant version of the plant with red flowers becomes more common with the passage of time. A particular variant of the beetle prefers the red flowers to the orange flowers. Over time, these two beetle variants diverge from each other to such an extent that interbreeding is no longer possible. What kind of speciation has occurred in this example, and what has driven it?
a.	allopatric speciation; temporal isolation	
b.	allopatric speciation; ecological isolation	
c.	sympatric speciation; habitat differentiation	
d.	sympatric speciation; sexual selection	

____	14.	Prokaryotes' essential genetic information is located in the
a.	plasmids.	
b.	nucleoid.	
c.	nucleolus.	
d.	nucleosome.	

____	15.	Which of these statements about prokaryotes is correct?
a.	Genetic variation in bacteria is not known to occur, because of their asexual mode of reproduction.	
b.	Their genetic material is confined within vesicles known as plasmids.	
c.	Bacterial cells divide by mitosis.	
d.	They divide by binary fission, without mitosis or meiosis.	

____	16.	The phenomenon of fusion is likely to occur when, after a period of geographic isolation, two populations meet again and
a.	an increasing number of viable, fertile hybrids is produced over the course of generations.	
b.	a constant number of viable, fertile hybrids is produced over the course of generations.	
c.	a decreasing number of viable, fertile hybrids is produced over the course of generations.	
d.	the hybrid zone is inhospitable to hybrid survival.	

____	17.	Rocky Mountain juniper (Juniperus scopulorum) and one-seeded juniper (J. monosperma) have overlapping ranges. If pollen grains (which contain sperm cells) from one species are unable to germinate and make pollen tubes on female ovules (which contain egg cells) of the other species, then which of these terms are applicable?
1.  sympatric species
2.  prezygotic isolation
3.  postzygotic isolation
4.  allopatric species
5.  habitat isolation
6.  reduced hybrid fertility
a.	2 and 4	
b.	1 and 2	
c.	2, 4, and 5	
d.	1, 3, and 6	

____	18.	Theoretically, the production of sterile mules by interbreeding between female horses (mares) and male donkeys (jacks) should
a.	eventually result in the formation of a single species from the two parental species.	
b.	result in the extinction of one of the two parental species.	
c.	strengthen postzygotic barriers between horses and donkeys.	
d.	cause convergent evolution.	

____	19.	In Fred Griffith's experiments, harmless R strain pneumococcus (bacteria) became lethal S strain pneumococcus as the result of the harmless R strain absorbing the lethal strain’s DNA from the environment. This is due to the process known as:
a.	transformation	
b.	transduction	
c.	meiosis	
d.	conjugation	

____	20.	Which of the following was derived from an ancestral cyanobacterium?
a.	chloroplast	
b.	endoplasmic reticulum	
c.	nucleus	
d.	golgi apparatus	

____	21.	Two species of frogs belonging to the same genus occasionally mate, but the offspring fail to develop and hatch. What is the mechanism for keeping the two frog species separate?
a.	the prezygotic barrier called reduced hybrid fertility	
b.	the postzygotic barrier called reduced hybrid viability	
c.	gametic isolation	
d.	the postzygotic barrier called hybrid breakdown	

____	22.	Which of the following factors would not contribute to allopatric speciation?
a.	A population becomes geographically isolated from the parent population.	
b.	The separated population is small, and genetic drift occurs.	
c.	The isolated population is exposed to different selection pressures than the ancestral population.	
d.	Gene flow between the two populations is extensive.	

____	23.	Genetic variation in bacterial populations cannot result from
a.	conjugation.	
b.	meiosis.	
c.	transduction.	
d.	transformation.	

____	24.	Which of these should decline in hybrid zones where reinforcement is occurring?
a.	mutation rate	
b.	the genetic distinctness of two gene pools	
c.	gene flow between distinct gene pools	
d.	hybrid sterility	

____	25.	According to the punctuated equilibria model of speciation,
a.	speciation is usually due to a single mutation.	
b.	most new species accumulate their unique features relatively rapidly as they come into existence, then change little for the rest of their duration as a species.	
c.	given enough time, most existing species will branch gradually into new species.	
d.	natural selection is unimportant as a mechanism of evolution.	

Short Answer: Please answer the following questions only on the test. 
26.  What are two reasons why prokaryotes are important?  Please explain your answer thoroughly and answer this question in complete sentences. (4 points)

27.  What is a mass extinction?  What happens to diversity as a result of a mass extinction (make sure to include adaptive radiation in this explanation)?  Why do scientists think a 6th one is currently occurring?  (5 points)

28.  (5 points)

AP Biology Unit 6 Part II test
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

	1.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	REF:	Knowledge/Comprehension
OBJ:	22.1	TOP:	Concept 22.1		

	2.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	REF:	Knowledge/Comprehension
OBJ:	22.2	TOP:	Concept 22.2		

	3.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	REF:	Synthesis/Evaluation	
OBJ:	22.2	TOP:	Concept 22.2		

	4.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	REF:	Application/Analysis	
OBJ:	22.1	TOP:	Concept 22.1		

	5.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	REF:	Synthesis/Evaluation	
OBJ:	22.3	TOP:	Concept 22.3		

	6.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	REF:	Knowledge/Comprehension
OBJ:	25.1	TOP:	Concept 25.1		

	7.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	REF:	Knowledge/Comprehension
OBJ:	22.4	TOP:	Concept 22.4		

	8.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	REF:	Knowledge/Comprehension
OBJ:	24.1	TOP:	Concept 24.1		

	9.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	REF:	Application/Analysis	
OBJ:	22.1	TOP:	Concept 22.1		

	10.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	REF:	Synthesis/Evaluation	
OBJ:	22.3	TOP:	Concept 22.3		

	11.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	REF:	Knowledge/Comprehension
OBJ:	22.3	TOP:	Concept 22.3		

	12.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	REF:	Application/Analysis	
OBJ:	23.1	TOP:	Concept 23.1		

	13.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	REF:	Knowledge/Comprehension
OBJ:	No L.O. Specified		TOP:	End-of-Chapter Questions

	14.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	REF:	Knowledge/Comprehension
OBJ:	24.1	TOP:	Concept 24.1		

	15.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	REF:	Knowledge/Comprehension
OBJ:	22.3	TOP:	Concept 22.3		

	16.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	REF:	Knowledge/Comprehension
OBJ:	23.2	TOP:	Concept 23.2		

	17.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	REF:	Application/Analysis	
OBJ:	22.2	TOP:	Concept 22.2		

	18.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	REF:	Knowledge/Comprehension
OBJ:	24.2	TOP:	Concept 24.2		

	19.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	REF:	Knowledge/Comprehension
OBJ:	24.3	TOP:	Concept 24.3		

	20.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	REF:	Knowledge/Comprehension
OBJ:	22.3	TOP:	Concept 22.3		

	21.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	REF:	Application/Analysis	
OBJ:	22.2	TOP:	Concept 22.2		

	22.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	REF:	Knowledge/Comprehension
OBJ:	22.1	TOP:	Concept 22.1		

	23.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	REF:	Synthesis/Evaluation	
OBJ:	24.3	TOP:	Concept 24.3		

	24.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	REF:	Knowledge/Comprehension
OBJ:	25.1	TOP:	Concept 25.1		

	25.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	REF:	Knowledge/Comprehension
OBJ:	22.1	TOP:	Concept 22.1		

	26.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	REF:	Application/Analysis	
OBJ:	No L.O. Specified		TOP:	End-of-Chapter Questions

	27.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	REF:	Application/Analysis	
OBJ:	24.5	TOP:	Concept 24.5		

	28.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	REF:	Knowledge/Comprehension
OBJ:	No L.O. Specified		TOP:	End-of-Chapter Questions

	29.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	REF:	Knowledge/Comprehension
OBJ:	22.3	TOP:	Concept 22.3		

	30.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	REF:	Application/Analysis	
OBJ:	22.4	TOP:	Concept 22.2		

	31.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	REF:	Knowledge/Comprehension
OBJ:	No L.O. Specified		TOP:	End-of-Chapter Questions

	32.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	REF:	Application/Analysis	
OBJ:	23.4	TOP:	Concept 23.4